Let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a Frobenius Lie algebra, that is, there exist $f \in \mathfrak{g}^{*}$ such that the bilinear form defined by $b(x,y)=f([x,y])$ is non-degenerate. My question is : Why can we assure that there exist some basis $\lbrace e_1, \ldots e_{2n} \rbrace$ such that the corresponding dual basis $\lbrace e^1,\ldots , e^{2n} \rbrace$ satisfies $f=e^1$ and $b=- \left( e^1 \wedge e^2 + e^3 \wedge e^4 + \cdots + e^{2n-1} \wedge e^{2n} \right)$ ?
I think the second part is clear, since $b$ is non-degenerate then $\hat{b}=-b$ is also non-degenerate and therefore there exist some basis $\lbrace e_1, \ldots e_{2n} \rbrace$ of $\mathfrak{g}$ such that $\hat{b}(e_{2i-1},e_{2i})=1$ (and thus $\hat{b}(e_{2i},e_{2i-1})=-1$) for $i=1, \ldots , n$ and $\hat{b}(e_i,e_j)=0$ otherwise.
Now, since
$$
\hat{b}= \sum_{i<j}^{}{a_{ij}e^{i} \wedge e^{j}}
$$
and $a_{ij}=\hat{b}(e_i,e_j)$ it follows from the last paragraph that
$$
\hat{b}= e^1 \wedge e^2 + e^3 \wedge e^4 + \cdots + e^{2n-1} \wedge e^{2n}
$$
but I don't see why would we have $f=e^1$.
Any help?
In advance thank you.