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I'm just brushing up on some proof writing and doing some work on my own. Figured I'd post this on here to get feed back and to make sure everything is correct. Hopefully the formatting comes through properly.

Exercise 1. Prove that if $\sigma$ is the $m$ -cycle $(a_{1}a_{2}...\, a_{m})$ , then for all $i\in\{1,2,...m\}$ , $\sigma^{i}(a_{k})=a_{k+i}$ , where $k+i$ is replaced by its least positive residue modulo $m$ . Deduce that $|\sigma|=m .$

Proof. We Proceed by induction. For $i=1$ , $\sigma^{1}(a_{k})=a_{k+1}$ is true by the definition of an $m$- cycle. If $k=m$ , $\sigma^{1}(a_{m})=a_{m+1}$ , however by the definition of an $m$- cycle, $\sigma^{1}(a_{m})=a_{1}$ . Therefore $a_{m+1}=a_{1}$ . Since $(m+1)-1=m$ , $m+1$ is replaced with its least positive reside modulo $m$ . Assume this is true for some $j<m$ .

$\sigma^{j+1}(a_{k})=\sigma(\sigma^{j}(a_{k}))=\sigma(a_{k+j})=a_{k+j+1}.$

Suppose $k=m$ , then

$\sigma^{j+1}(a_{m})=\sigma^{j}(\sigma(m))=\sigma^{j}(a_{m+1})=a_{j+m+1}.$

However, we discovered before that $a_{m+1}=a_{1}.$ Therefore,

$\sigma^{j}(a_{1})=a_{j+1}.$

This means that $a_{j+1}=a_{j+m+1}$ and since $(j+m+1)-(j+1)=m$ , $j+m+1$ is replaced with its least positive residue modulo $m .$

Also note that $\sigma^{m}(a_{k})=a_{k+m}$ and since $k+m=k$ modulo $m$ , $\sigma^{m}(a_{k})=a_{k}$ which means that $|\sigma|=m.$

Anmastri
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1 Answers1

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Your proof seems like a reasonable proof to me.

I should note that this was exercise 1, and I don't think it was because you are to flex your proof muscles to prove it. Instead, I think it's more about wrapping your head around cycles and how they behave.

  • Thanks. And yes you are right. Just finished my undergrad in dec and trying to go to grad school. So I'm working on as many topics as I can on my own in abstract algebra and I really want to know things inside and out. Oh, I think it was actually ex 10 not 1 in section 1.3 on permutations. – Anmastri Jul 07 '13 at 02:26