Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces. Is it true that, if we have a weak homotopy equivalence $f:X \rightarrow Y$, then there exists a weak homotopy equivalence $g:Y \rightarrow X$?
I can't quite find an answer to this online. I suspect that it is true, since I think that weak homotopy equivalence should be an equivalence relation.
Thanks!