Just a question I've been thinking about: find/characterize all rational monic polynomials $P(x)$, such that $\frac{P(x^2)}{P(x)}$ is also a polynomial. Of course it is possible that this is not an easy to describe list because of its infinite nature, but I would like to get some assistance in further exploring it.
I already proved that all the roots of $P(x)$ must have magnitude $1$ or $0$ (but those aren't that interesting), or else it would have infinite roots. I have also been able to prove that the roots must have rational (multiples of $\pi$) arguments. I also got a lot of ideas for when $P(x)$ is not constrained to being rational. I'm not sure what I would need to do to also add that constraint. Here are my ideas (they don't constrain $P(x)$ to be rational)
Some examples of polynomials that do work are $P(x)=x^k-1$ and $P(x)=x^{2k}+x^{2k-1}+\ldots+1$ where $k\in\mathbb{N}$. Also some less normal polynomials such as $P(x)=x^4+x^2+1$ and $P(x)=(x-\omega)(x-\omega^2)(x-\omega^4)$ where $\omega=cis\left(\frac{2\pi}{7}\right)$ (I'm not sure if this simplifies to anything nicely). Of course if $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ both satisfy the condition, then so does $P(x)Q(x)$, so we can combine polynomials together.
At least what I've seen is that if $r$ is a root of $P(x)$, then at the minimum, $r^2$ should also be a root. This is because we need to cancel out the $(x-r)$ term from the denominator with $(x^2-r^2)$ in the numerator. This gets pretty complicated with multiplicity, which I have not been able to completely wrap my head around as $(x^2-r^2)$ can cancel out $2$ roots in the denominator.
Ignoring multiplicity, if we consider a set of the $n$th roots of unity, $\{\omega,\omega^2,\ldots \omega^n\}$, then if we want to remove $\omega^k$, then we have to ensure that there does not exist any $\omega^j$ such that $2j\equiv k\mod n$ (and if we do, we must also remove those roots). This seems like a pretty powerful tool that can obtain the examples I found above and many more.
As for the context of this, I thought about when dealing with the telescoping product $\frac{1}{x^2-x+1}\cdot \frac{1}{x^4-x^2+1}\cdot \frac{1}{x^8-x^4+1}\ldots$. When we use the fact that $x^2-x+1=\frac{x^4+x^2+1}{x^2+x+1}$, the telescoping becomes clear.
Edit: proof of claims about roots having magnitude $1$ and rational multiples of $\pi$ arguments.
AFSOC, that there is a root of $P(x)$ with largest magnitude $r>1$, $re^{i\theta}$. Then as we showed before, $r^2e^{2i\theta}$ must also be a root. However, $r^2>r$ for $r>1$, hence this contradicts with this root having the largest magnitude. Similar reasoning shows that there cannot be a root with magnitude $r<1$ (aside from $r=0$).
My argument for there not being roots with arguments being irrational multiples of $\pi$ is not super rigorous, but if we have $\theta$ being the argument of a root, then $2\theta, 4\theta, 8\theta, \ldots$ must be all be arguments of roots. However, if $\theta$ was an irrational multiple of $\pi$, then its argument will never repeat itself (I'm not sure how to prove this, but it seems reasonable enough).