Say the value of $dy/dx$ for a function $y=f(x)$ at $x=a$ was turning out to be some finite value $A$, is it still possible that the function is non-differentiable at $x=a$.
If I'm getting a finite value of derivative for a function at a point, can I be sure about that the function is differentiable at that point? or is it like getting a finite value at a point doesn't guarantee that the function is differentiable at that point.