In Loring Tu's Introduction to Manifolds pg. 49, it was said that the cross in $\mathbb R^2$ 
is not a topological manifold because it is not locally Euclidean at the intersection $p$.
In the proof, it was written:
Suppose the cross is locally Euclidean of dimension $n$ at the point $p$. Then $p$ has a neighborhood $U$ homeomorphic to an open ball $B :=B(o,\epsilon) \subset\mathbb R^n$ with $p $ mapping to $0$.
But the definition of locally Euclidean is given on pg. 48 as:
A topological space $M$ is locally Euclidean of dimension $n$ if every point $p$ in $M$ has a neighborhood $U$ such that there is homeomorphism $\phi $ from $U$ onto an open subset of $\mathbb R^n$.
The definition suggests that there may be only one neighbohood $U$ containing $p$ that can be mapped onto an open subset of $\mathbb R^n$, which need not be an open ball. Why can the author assume that for the cross, there can be multiple neighborhoods $U$ containing $p$ that each maps onto an open ball of arbitrary radius $\epsilon?$