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I'd like to derive a slightly more general result than the transport equation.

I have the PDE $0 = u_y(x,y) - g(y)f(x)u_x(x,y)$ with $u(x,0) = h(x),$

and in imploring the characteristic method, I arrive at

$$ 1 = \frac{dy}{ds}, \ g(y)f(x) = \frac{dx}{ds}, \ 0 = z(x(s),y(s)) .$$

Now, when I'm integrating these ODE, where I'm confused is whether I treat the $g(y)$ term as a constant or if I can integrate $\int_{s_0}^{s} g(v)dv = \int_{s_0}^{x(s)}\frac{dx/ds}{f(x)}ds.$

I'm sure this solution has some kind of ascertainable result.

1 Answers1

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$$u_y(x,y) - g(y)f(x)u_x(x,y)=0$$ Charpit-Lagrange characteristic ODEs : $$\frac{dy}{1}=\frac{dx}{- g(y)f(x)}=\frac{du}{0}$$ A first characteristic equation comes from $\frac{du}{0}\quad\implies\quad du=0\quad $ thus : $$u=c_1$$ A second characteristic equation comes from solving $\frac{dy}{1}=\frac{dx}{- g(y)f(x)}\quad\implies\quad g(y)dy+\frac{dx}{f(x)}=0$ $$\int g(y)dy+\int\frac{dx}{f(x)}=c_2$$ The general solution of the PDE on the form of implicit equation $c_1=\Phi(c_2)$ is : $$\boxed{u(x,y)=\Phi\left(\int_{y_0}^y g(\mu)d\mu+\int_{x_0}^x\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}\right)}$$ $\Phi$ is an arbitrary function (to be determined according to the specified condition).

Condition : $u(x,0)=h(x)$

We set $y_0=0$ into the above general solution without loss of generality. $$h(x)=\Phi\left(\int_{0}^0 g(\mu)d\mu+\int_{x_0}^x\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}\right)$$ $$h(x)=\Phi\left(\int_{x_0}^x\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}\right)$$ Let $X(x)=\int_{x_0}^x\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}$

Supposing that $\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}$ is integrable and that the inverse function of $X(x)$ can be expressed on the form of $x=\Psi(X)$, then : $$\Phi(X)=h\bigg(\Psi(X)\bigg)$$

Now $\Phi(X)$ is a known function since $\Psi(X)$ has been expressed. We put $\Phi(X)$ into the above general solution where $X=\int_{0}^y g(\mu)d\mu+\int_{x_0}^x\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}$ $$\boxed{u(x,y)=h\left(\Psi\left(\int_{0}^y g(\mu)d\mu+\int_{x_0}^x\frac{d\nu}{f(\nu)}\right)\right)}$$ This is the particular solution which satisfies both the PDE and the condition.

Note that obtaining the function $\Psi$ from the function $1/f(x)$ involves an integration and then an inversion which is the most difficult part of the task. The most often this is problematic. Certainly few functions $f(x)$ are nice enough to finally get an analytical result.

Comment:

One might be surprised that an arbitrary constant $x_0$ seems to remains in the final equation. As a matter of fact the final result doesn't depends on the choice of starting point $x_0$ for the integration. Try with some examples of explicit functions $f(x)$. You will obseved that $x_0$ vanishes along the process of inversion.

JJacquelin
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  • "Kettle of fish"?! :-D – MathematicalPhysicist Jan 22 '22 at 19:54
  • Thank you very much JJacquelin, I'll look this over. What is puzzling to me is why there is this extra function $\Psi$. WolframAlpha says the result is $h(\int(g) + \int(1/f)),$ but I had reason to believe that was incorrect and so asked here. Now you've illustrated that indeed there is a missing component that Wolfram didn't specify. Although I've seen the $dx = dy = dz$ formula implored in the characteristic method before, I don't understand why it's applicable here. I think you mean $du/ds=0$ and thus integrating yields a constant? How do you formalize dividing by 0 like this? – StackQuest Jan 22 '22 at 21:01
  • Hi Jacquelin, I also notice you have an external account where you publish literature. Do you happen to have a tutorial on the characteristic method? – StackQuest Jan 22 '22 at 21:09
  • Also, would you be willing to clarify directly what $\Psi$ is? It seems like you're suggesting $\Psi$ is the inverse of $\int 1/f$ which makes sense to me, I found something similar when I tried to go about this and I don't mind taking the inverse. – StackQuest Jan 22 '22 at 21:14
  • And, how do you know $c_1 = \Phi(c_2)$? What is the basis for assuming that? – StackQuest Jan 22 '22 at 23:55
  • They are a lot of questions.

    First : One can see directly from the PDE that $u(x,y)=$constant is a particular solution. This is also a characteristic equation $u=c_1$.

    Second : $dx=dy=dz$ is not true in generaL In the present case you wrote $ 1 = \frac{dy}{ds}, \ g(y)f(x) = \frac{dx}{ds}, \ 0 = z(x(s),y(s)) .$ This is equivalent to $ds=\frac{dy}{1}=\frac{dx}{- g(y)f(x)}=\frac{du}{0}$.

    Third : Yes, $\Psi$ is the inverse of $\int 1/f$ .

    Fourth : $c_1=\Phi(c_2)$ is a form of general solution $F(c_1,c_2)=0$ with arbitrary functions $F$ and $\Phi$ : (meaning arbitrary relationship).

    – JJacquelin Jan 23 '22 at 08:30
  • Also see : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Method_of_characteristics . The symbol $t$ is used instead of $s$. And the symbol $z$ is used instead of $u$. In the present case $c(x,y,z)=0$. – JJacquelin Jan 23 '22 at 08:39