let $$f(x)=\begin{cases} \dfrac{1}{a-1}(x-1)&x\ge a\\ \dfrac{1}{a-2}(x-2)& x<a \end{cases}$$ There exist $t_{1},t_{2}$ such that $$f(t_{1})=\dfrac{1}{2},f(t_{2})=\dfrac{3}{2}$$ then $$t_{1}-t_{2}$$ the range of values is ?
my book have only have result $$t_{1}-t_{2}\in (-\infty,-\dfrac{1}{2})\cup (\dfrac{1}{2},+\infty)$$ true or false?