I came across this statement in my math textbook: $$\exists x\in\mathbb{Q}\ :\ \forall y\in\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Q},\ xy\in\mathbb{Q}$$ The only number $x$ for which it's true (that I can think of) is $0,$ as in: $$xy=0\times y=0$$ I know that this is enough to prove the statement true, however, I wonder if there is another number which satisfies this statement. Because if there isn't, $x$ could well be denoted as belonging to the set of natural numbers.
So here's my question: can you think of any other rational number $x$ besides $0$ for which this statement would be true, if there is one at all? And if not, could the statement be rewritten to $\exists x\in\mathbb{N}\ \forall y\in\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Q}:xy\in\mathbb{N}$ and still keep the same meaning?