6

What i have done so for:

  1. $2^{(n-1)!} \equiv 1 (mod\hspace 1 mmn)$
  2. Thought about wilson`s theorem but $n$ is not a prime.
  3. Tried to break the factorial and reduce the congruence to $2^{(n-2)!}$ but not sure this is the right way to do.

Any advice would be highly appreciated.

Mabadai
  • 369

2 Answers2

7

If $n$ is odd, then surely $(2,n)=1$. So you can use Fermat's Little Theorem(Euler's Generalization).

And also, $\phi(n)<n$ holds, so $\phi(n)\mid(n-1)!$.

Let $(n-1)!=m\phi(n)$, then $2^{(n-1)!}=2^{m\phi(n)}=(2^{\phi(n)})^m\equiv1^m=1\pmod n$.

MH.Lee
  • 5,568
3

HINT: $\varphi(n)$, where $\varphi(n)=\left|\left(\mathbb{Z}/n \mathbb{Z}\right)^×\right|$, divides $(n-1)!$, and $2\in \left(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}\right)^×$, because $n$ is odd. Finish using Euler's Thm. [Mistakenly called it Fermat, thanks @fleablood in the comments for the correction]

Mike
  • 20,434