Lately I worked with stationary processes of the following kind. Let $(\varepsilon_i)_{i\in\mathbb{N}_0}$ be iid. RVs. Let $\xi_n := (...,\varepsilon_{n-1}, \varepsilon_n)$ and further let $g:\mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{N}_0} \to \mathbb{R}$ measurable such that $X_n := g(\xi_n)$ describes a sequence of random variables. Let now $F_n := \sigma(\xi_n)$ be the sequence of sigma algebras generated by $\xi_n$, i.e. a filtration, since $F_{n-1} \subset F_n$.
By a result in probability theory – we called it the shifting lemma – one can notice that $X_n$ is stationary and ergodic.
In the case $j \geq i$, I'm wondering whether the following statements holds for the conditional expectation of this sequence of stationary processes:
$\mathbb{E}(X_i \mid F_j) = \mathbb{E}(X_0\mid F_{j-i})$
My idea to proof this, was rather simple and I'm wondering, if I'm missing something.
Let $F \in F_{j-i} \subset F_j$. Now $\int_F \mathbb{E}(X_i \mid F_j) d\mathbb{P} \overset{(a)}{=} \int_F X_i d\mathbb{P} \overset{(b)}{=} \int_F X_0 d\mathbb{P} $
where (a) holds by definition of the conditional expectation and (b) due to stationarity. Since $F$ was arbitrary, this should, again by definition of the conditional expectation prove the statement.
Edit: (I messed up the indices)
What I wanted to show, is that $\mathbb{E}[X_k\mid\mathcal{F}_{j}] = \mathbb{E}[X_{k+l}\mid\mathcal{F}_{j+l}]$ for any $j < k$ and $l \geq 0$.
Also I want to use a result, which says if $h(X)$ is a measurable solution of $\int_F h(X) d\mathbb{P} = \int_F X d\mathbb{P}$ $\forall F \in \mathcal{F}$, then $h(X) = \mathbb{E}[X \mid \mathcal{F}]$ $\mathbb{P}-a.s.$
Since for any $F \in \mathcal{F}_j$ we already have $F \in \mathcal{F}_{j+l}$ and thus
$\int_F \mathbb{E}[X_{k+l}\mid\mathcal{F}_{j+l}] d\mathbb{P} \overset{F \in \mathcal{F}_{j+l}}{=} \int_F X_{k+l} d\mathbb{P} \overset{stationary}{=} \int_F X_{k} d\mathbb{P}$
holds true for any $F \in \mathcal{F}_j$, which yields $\mathbb{E}[X_{k+l}\mid\mathcal{F}_{j+l}] = \mathbb{E}[X_k \mid \mathcal{F}_j]$ $\mathbb{P}-a.s.$.
Does this now seem correct or am I still missing something?
The proof I proposed, that for all $F \in \mathcal{F}_{j-i}$ the following holds $$\int_F \mathbb{E}(X_i\mid\mathcal{F}_j ) d \mathbb{P} = \int_F X_i d \mathbb{P} = \int_F X_0 d \mathbb{P} $$ fails because although I have stationarity, the integral domain will change in the last step. Is that correct?
– student7481 May 28 '22 at 14:32