This is part of proof in https://www.people.vcu.edu/~rhammack/BookOfProof/Main.pdf#page=165
"... show that $d$ is the unique such natural number. To do this, suppose $d'$ is any nautral number with the property the $d$ has: $m$ is a multiple of $d'$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $m=ax+by $ for some $x, y$ (7.1) ... Because of (7.1), $m = a · 1+ b · 0 = a$ is a multiple of $d'$. Likewise $m = a · 0 + b · 1 = b$ is a multiple of $d'$. Hence $a$ and $b$ are both multiples of $d'$, so $d'$ is a common divisor of $a$ and $b$, and therefore $d'$ ≤ gcd(a,b) = d"
I don't get the part where $d'$ can be a common divisor of $a$ and $b$. Shouldn't it be $m_a = a · 1+ b · 0 = a$ is a multiple of $d_a'$. Likewise $m_b = a · 0 + b · 1 = b$ is a multiple of $d_b'$? I don't understand why $m=m_a=m_b$ and $d'=d_a'=d_b'$.
I feel like the proof is saying $m = a · 1+ b · 0 = a = a · 0 + b · 1 = b$ or $m=a=b$. What's wrong with my understanding? Thanks.