I have a Bayesian stat question where I am a little confused.
Let $N_{1}$ and $N_{2}$ independent having $\mbox{Poisson}(\Lambda)$ distribution and $\Lambda \sim \mbox{Gamma}(\alpha,\theta)$. Then how we prove that $N_{1} + N_{2} \sim \mbox{Poisson}(2 \Lambda)$ because it could be the case that $N_{1} \sim \mbox{Poisson}(2)$ and $N_{2} \sim \mbox{Poisson}(17)$?
Thank you!