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Solve using Monge's method $$(r-s)x=(t-s)y$$ Where

  • $r={\partial ^2z\over \partial x^2}$,
  • $s={\partial ^2z\over \partial x\partial y}$ and
  • $t={\partial ^2z\over \partial y^2}$.

My attempt:

I found out two distinct intermediate integrals and solved them for $p$ and $q$, but I got stuck after this step: $$ dz=(ydx-xdy).\phi\left({x\over y}\right)+(dx+dy)\cdot\big(z+\psi(x+y)\big), $$ where $\phi$ and $\psi$ are arbitrary functions. Here $z$ is creating some problems.

My attempt was to transform the equation in an exact differential, something like the following form $$ d\big(z\cdot f(x,y)\big)=\phi'\left({x\over y}\right)d\left({x\over y}\right)+\psi'(x+y)d(x+y)$$

RKK
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  • You should show how you are stuck; why is $z$ causing you a problem? – FShrike Feb 20 '22 at 13:33
  • What are $p,q$? Further, what might be “usual notations” for your textbook or course might not be usual notations for everyone, so it might be worth explaining what they actually are – FShrike Feb 20 '22 at 13:35
  • @Fshrik okay sir i edited my question as you suggested . Please check – RKK Feb 20 '22 at 14:01
  • That is useful. I can’t help you, but I’ve upvoted and I hope someone else can help – FShrike Feb 20 '22 at 14:01

1 Answers1

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Using Monge's method, the equation reads $$x r-yt+(y-x)s=0\tag{1}$$ where $r=\partial_{xx}z$, $t=\partial_{yy}z$ and $s=\partial_{xy}z$ (I denote partial derivative $\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x^2}$ as $\partial_{xx}z$ etc). Set $p=\partial_x z$ and $q=\partial_y z$ so that $$dz=pdx+q dy.$$ From $dp=rdx+sdy$ and $dq=sdx+tdy$ we get $$r=\frac{dp-sdy}{dx},\qquad t=\frac{dq-sdx}{dy}.$$ Plugging this into the PDE we get: $$x\left(\frac{dp-sdy}{dx}\right)-y\left(\frac{dq-sdx}{dy}\right)+(y-x)s=0.$$ Multiplying by $dxdy$ and rearranging terms we get: $$xdpdy-ydqdx-s[(x-y)dxdy+xdy^2-ydx^2]=0.$$ The two Monge auxiliary equations are therefore: $$xdpdy-ydqdx=0,\tag{2a}$$ $$(x-y)dxdy+xdy^2-ydx^2=0\tag{2b}.$$ Next we write $(2b)$ as $$(xdy-ydx)(dx+dy)=0\tag{3}.$$ Now the Monge method considers the case where the first factor cancels: $xdy-ydx=0$ which means $x/y=c_1$, and since $ydx=xdy$ equation $(2a)$ becomes merely $dp=dq$ so that $p-q=c_2$. This means that $p-q=f(\frac xy)$. When the second factor cancels, $dx=-dy$ thus $x+y=c_3$ and $$dz=pdx+qdy=(p-q)dx=h(\frac x y)dx$$ for arbitrary $f$. Integrating gives the general solution to $(1)$ as $$z(x,y)=y H(\frac x y)+M(x+y)$$ where $H$ and $M$ are arbitrary.


One more modern way to integrate your PDE which is : $$x(\partial_{xx}z-\partial_{xy}z)=y(\partial_{yy}z-\partial_{xy}z)$$ is to use the d'Alembert change of variables as in the wave equation. Set $$\xi=x+y\qquad \eta=x-y$$ and plug $z(x,y)=v(\xi,\eta)=v(x+y,x-y)$ into the equation. By the chain rule, you eventually get a PDE on $v$ which is $$\xi\partial_{\xi\eta}v+\eta\partial_{\eta\eta}v=0.$$ This one is easy to integrate since $w=\partial_\eta v$ should verify: $$\xi\partial_\xi w+\eta\partial_\eta w=0,$$ whose integral is $w(\xi,\eta)=f(\frac\eta\xi)$ for an arbitrary $f$. Integrating in $\eta$ gives $$v(\xi,\eta)=\xi F(\frac\eta\xi)+G(\xi)$$ for arbitrary $F$ and $G$. Therefore the general integral of your PDE is given by: $$z(x,y)=(x+y)F(\frac{x-y}{x+y})+G(x+y)$$ for arbitrary functions $F$ and $G$. Note that since $$(x+y)F(\frac{x-y}{x+y})=y(1+\frac x y)F(\frac{x/y-1}{x/y+1})$$ this solution could also be written as $$z(x,y)=yM(\frac x y)+G(x+y)$$ so that we recover the same solution as by Monge's method.

Emmanuel
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  • Thanks sir for your answer . But i am particularly interested in solving this question by Monge's method . It's in my book and i have to do it from Monge's . i solved many same previous question by the method . I am only stuck now in some last steps . By the way in your answer how do we decide what will be change of variables ? – RKK Feb 23 '22 at 16:31
  • I edited my answer to try to apply it to the Monge's method, but I would need more information on how you found your $dz$. – Emmanuel Feb 24 '22 at 09:46
  • I used Monge's subsidiary equation to find two intermediate integrals and then solved them for expression for p and q .then substituted their value in expression $$dz=pdx+qdy$$ – RKK Feb 24 '22 at 11:55
  • I finally worked out how to find the same solution by Monge's method, hope that helps! I do not see how you obtained your $dz$ expression into which $z$ appears, by the way. Best regards. – Emmanuel Feb 25 '22 at 00:00