0

I am studying the ring homomorphism of the following function:

If $f: M \to N$ is a smooth function, then $$f^*: C^{\infty}(N) \to C^{\infty}(M), \textbf{ defined by } \phi \mapsto \phi \circ f$$ is a ring homomorphism.

I know that the given function $f^*$ should satisfy that for every $h,g \in C^{\infty}(M),$ we have that $f^*(hg) = f^*(g) f^*(h).$ my question is should the operation between $g,h$ be multiplication or composition and why?

Could someone explain this to me please?

Brain
  • 1,003
  • 1
    There is a reason to use a different alphabet for the elements of $C^{\infty}$ and $f:M\to N.$ $f^{*}(hg)$ makes $f,g,h$ look similar. They are not. – Thomas Andrews Feb 28 '22 at 23:32

1 Answers1

1

It is multiplication. If $h$ and $g$ are maps from $N$ into $\Bbb R$ how could you possibly compose them? Only if $N=\Bbb R$.

When I write that it is multiplication, what I mean is that $hg$ is the map $n\mapsto h(n)g(n)$