I'm trepidatious to accept an answer here because there's a couple points the author hasn't cleared up
Why doesn't this differential technique work?
$y''/y$ certainly exists if the solution exists wherever $y \neq 0$, and it is integrable.
Secondly, $y''/y = t$ which is an invertible function. In the worst case scenario, suppose we define a new function, the inverse Airy function's derivative over a compact set $Ai'^{-1}(t).$
We can represent $t$ then as $Ai'^{-1}(Ai'(t)) = t$ over varying compact intervals corresponding to the appropriate branch of its inverse, so clearly an antiderivative does exist in terms of $y',$ though it is then still an open-question as to how we derive it.
What are the flaws in our reasonings here?