Show that $((p \vee q) \wedge \neg (\neg p \wedge (\neg q \vee \neg r))) \vee ( \neg p \wedge \neg q) \vee (\neg p \vee r )$
is a tautology (without using truth table).
After simplification I got $ ((p \vee q) \wedge (p \vee r)) \vee \neg (p \vee q) \vee \neg (p \wedge \neg r)$, which could easily become $T$ if there was $\neg (p \vee r) $ instead of last term.
But this expression is also a tautology using truth table.