Say you use a test under which you have a $5\%$ chance of rejecting $\mu_1=\mu_2$ given that that null hypothesis is actually true, and you also have a $5\%$ chance of rejecting $\mu_2=\mu_3$, given that that is true, and you have a $5\%$ chance of rejecting $\mu_2=\mu_3$ given that that is true. What, then, is the probability that you reject at least one of those, given that all three are true? That's harder to figure out because of the nature of the dependence among the tests. I'm not sure what the answer is without working out the details, but I know it's more than $5\%$. If you want to limit your probability of type I error to $5\%$ when testing $\mu_1=\mu_2=\mu_3$, you can't do it by treating those three hypotheses separately and testing at the $5\%$ level each time. Possibly that was the professor's concern. (But I'd have to know more than you've said in your question to be sure of that.)