Clearly, we only need to prove the case when $a, b, c, d \ge 0$.
After homogenization, it suffices to prove that, for all $a, b, c, d\ge 0$,
$$(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2)(a + b + c + d) + a^3 + b^3 + c^3 + d^3
\le \frac52 (a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2)^{3/2}.$$
WLOG, assume that $d = \max(a, b, c, d)$.
If $d = 0$, the inequality is true.
In the following, assume that $d > 0$. WLOG, assume that $d = 1$.
It suffices to prove that, for all $a, b, c \in [0, 1]$,
$$(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + 1)(a + b + c + 1) + a^3 + b^3 + c^3 + 1
\le \frac52 (a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + 1)^{3/2}.$$
Let $p = a + b + c$, $q = a^2 + b^2 + c^2$ and $r = abc$.
We have
$$0 \le q \le 3, \quad \sqrt{q} \le p \le \sqrt{3q}. \tag{1}$$
Using
$a^3 + b^3 + c^3 = -\frac12 p^3 + \frac32 pq + 3r$,
the inequality is written as
$$(q + 1)(p + 1) -\frac12 p^3 + \frac32 pq + 3r + 1 \le \frac52(q + 1)^{3/2}. \tag{2}$$
Using
$(ab + bc + ca)^2 \ge 3(a + b + c)abc$ (easy) which is written as $(\frac{p^2 - q}{2})^2 \ge 3pr$, we have
$$r \le \frac{(p^2 - q)^2}{12p}. \tag{3}$$
Using (3), it suffices to prove that
$$(q + 1)(p + 1) -\frac12 p^3 + \frac32 pq + 3\cdot \frac{(p^2 - q)^2}{12p} + 1 \le \frac52(q + 1)^{3/2}$$
or
$$2pq + p + q + 2 - \frac14p^3 + \frac{q^2}{4p} \le \frac52(q + 1)^{3/2}. \tag{4}$$
Let $f(p) = 2pq + p + q + 2 - \frac14p^3 + \frac{q^2}{4p}$. We have
$$f'(p) = 2q + 1 - \frac34 p^2 - \frac{q^2}{4p^2}.$$
We have, for all $\sqrt{q} \le p \le \sqrt{3q}$,
$$f''(p) = - \frac{3p^4 - q^2}{2p^3} \le 0.$$
Also, $f'(\sqrt{3q}) = 1 - q/3 \ge 0.$
Thus, $f'(p) \ge 0$ for all $\sqrt{q} \le p \le \sqrt{3q}$.
It suffices to prove that, for all $0 \le q \le 3$,
$$f(\sqrt{3q}) \le \frac52(q + 1)^{3/2}$$
or
$$\frac{4}{\sqrt 3} q^{3/2} + \sqrt{3q} + q + 2 \le \frac52(q + 1)^{3/2}$$
which is true (not difficult).
We are done.
The inequality can be generalized to $n$ variables.
Problem 1: Let $n\ge 4$. Let $a_i \ge 0, i=1, 2, \cdots, n$ with $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i^2 = n$. Prove that
$$n\sum_{i=1}^n a_i + \sum_{i=1}^n a_i^3 \le n^2 + n.$$
Using Vasc's Equal Variable Theorem (Corollary 1.9, [1]), it suffices to prove the case when $a_1 = a_2 = \cdots = a_{n - 1}$.
Let $a_1 = a_2 = \cdots = a_{n - 1} = x \ge 0$ and $a_n = y \ge 0$.
We have $(n - 1)x^2 + y^2 = n$ which results in $0 \le x \le \sqrt{n/(n - 1)}$ and
$$y = \sqrt{n - (n - 1)x^2}.$$
It suffices to prove that
$$n [(n - 1)x + y] + (n - 1)x^3 + y^3 \le n^2 + n$$
or
$$n^2 + n - (n - 1)x^3 - (n^2 - n)x \ge (2n + x^2 - nx^2)\sqrt{n - (n - 1)x^2}.$$
It is easy to prove that $\mathrm{LHS} \ge 0$.
It suffices to prove that
$$[n^2 + n - (n - 1)x^3 - (n^2 - n)x]^2 \ge (2n + x^2 - nx^2)^2[n - (n - 1)x^2]$$
or
$$n(x - 1)^2(n - 1)[(n - 1)(x^4 + 2x^3 + n) - 4nx] \ge 0$$
which is true (not difficult).
Reference:
[1] Vasile Cirtoaje, “The Equal Variable Method”, J. Inequal. Pure and Appl. Math., 8(1), 2007. Online: https://www.emis.de/journals/JIPAM/images/059_06_JIPAM/059_06.pdf