Consider a set $X$ equipped and two functions $f,g : X \rightarrow X$. Assume $f$ and $g$ commute with each other. Finally, call $x \in X$ a fixed point of $f$ iff $f(x)=x.$
Then we can show that if $x$ is a fixed point of $f$, then so too is $g(x)$.
Proof. Suppose $f(x)=x$. Then $g(f(x))=g(x)$. So $f(g(x))=g(x)$. So $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $f$.
This is probably a silly question, but if we assume that $f$ and $g$ are idempotent, does the converse necessarily hold?