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Consider a set $X$ equipped and two functions $f,g : X \rightarrow X$. Assume $f$ and $g$ commute with each other. Finally, call $x \in X$ a fixed point of $f$ iff $f(x)=x.$

Then we can show that if $x$ is a fixed point of $f$, then so too is $g(x)$.

Proof. Suppose $f(x)=x$. Then $g(f(x))=g(x)$. So $f(g(x))=g(x)$. So $g(x)$ is a fixed point of $f$.

This is probably a silly question, but if we assume that $f$ and $g$ are idempotent, does the converse necessarily hold?

goblin GONE
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1 Answers1

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No. Consider the three element set $\{ 0,1\}$. Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are both equal to the function taking everything to $0$. Then $g(1)$ is a fixed point of $f$, since $f(g(1))=f(0)=0=g(1)$. However, $1$ is not a fixed point, since $f(1) = 0 \neq 1.$

goblin GONE
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Joe Tait
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