Is there a transformation that makes $\frac{1}{t}(e^{t^2}-1)e^{\frac{1}{t}}(1-\frac{1}{t})$ equal to $t^{-3}(e^{t^2}-e^t)+t^{-2}-t^{-1}$? The reason I ask is that for the integral $$\int_1^t{\int_0^t{\frac{e^{(tx)/y}}{y^{3}}dx}dy}$$, I get the former while Apostol gets the latter (Apostol Calculus Vol 2, 1st Edition, Section 2.9, #6). There graphs look different, so I am guessing not. Still I feel like I solved this problem, but I'd like to know how Apostol got his answer in the form he presented.
First the inner integral:
$$y^{-3}e^{1/y}\int_0^t{e^{tx}dx}$$
y^(-3)e^(1/y)1/t[e^(tx)]_x=0^x=t
y^(-3)e^(1/y)1/t(e^t^2-1)
Now for the outer integral:
1/t(e^t^2-1)*Integrate[y^(-3)e^(1/y),{y,1,t}]
u-substitution:
u=1/y, du=-1/y^2
-Integrate[e^u*u,u]
IBP:
f=u, dg=e^u df=du, g=e^u
-(u*e^u-Integral[e^u,u])=e^u-u*e^u
Plug u back in:
e^(1/y)(1-1/y)|_1^t
Combine it all for final result:
1/t(e^t^2-1)e^(1/t)(1-1/t)