Show that $\mathbb{R}^{2} \setminus \{ (0, 0)\}$ is not simply connected. Does it also hold for $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{0\}$?
Suppose, for the sake of contradiction, it was simply connected.
Consider the functions \begin{align*} &\varphi \colon [0, \pi ] \to \mathbb{R}^{2}, &&\psi \colon [0, \pi ] \to \mathbb{R}^{2} \\ &\varphi( x) = \left(-\cos\left(x\right), \sin\left(x\right) \right), &&\psi ( x) = ( -\cos\left( x\right) , -\sin\left( x\right) ) \end{align*} which parametrise the upper and lower half of the unit circle respectively. Now there must exist some homotopy $H\colon [0, \pi ]\times [0, 1]\to \mathbb{R}^{2} $ which transforms $\varphi$ into $\psi$. Since $H$ is continuous by definition, in particular the function \begin{align*} g\colon [0, 1] \to \mathbb{R}^{2}, \quad g( t) = H( \pi /2, t) \end{align*} is continuous (so with this function one basically only considers what happens on the straight line joining $(0, 1)$ and $(0, -1)$, and the idea is that our homotopy must at some point pass through $(0, 0)$) . $g(0) = (0, 1)$ and $g( 1) =( 0, -1) $. Even though it is intuitively clear that the first component of $g( x)$ will always be $0$, I don't know how to show this. After this I could then apply the intermediate value theorem.
For the second question I would say yes, since the proof is probably analogous to the above.
Could someone help me to finish my proof?