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I want to compute the following integral involving complex exponentials but my approach is leading me to problems with infinities.

$$ I = {a \over 2} \int_{-\infty}^\infty (e^{-bt^2+i \omega t} + e^{-bt^2-i \omega t})\; dt $$

$$ = {a \over 2} \bigg({e^{-bt^2+i \omega t} \over -2bt+i \omega}\bigg|_{-\infty}^\infty + {e^{-bt^2-i \omega t} \over {-2bt-i \omega}}\bigg|_{-\infty}^\infty\bigg) $$

This leads to problems with infinities.

Veak
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    When you take the derivative of your antiderivatives, do you get the original integrands back? (the answer may surprise you) Also, I would recommend looking into the Gaussian integral – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 13:11
  • Are there good reading material to help handle integrals of Gaussians with proofs? – Veak Apr 16 '22 at 14:30
  • The linked article contains the main part of what should be necessary here, is there something else in particular you need? – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 14:50
  • Have been working on the integral $\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-at^2} \cos (\omega t) dt$ – Veak Apr 16 '22 at 14:53
  • Right, and your approach seems perfectly sensible, the article contains what you should need to continue from there. (in fact it contains a generalized formula which would give you the answers for both integrals, from which point you could continue just with algebra) – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 14:59
  • If you'd like there's also an alternative method using differentiation under the integral sign, where you differentiate in terms of $\omega$ and then integrate by parts. There's no real need for it but it's always fun to mention – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 16:34
  • I do need assistance on the proceeding steps as the Gaussian Integral link does not discuss complex exponents. – Veak Apr 16 '22 at 17:53
  • It works out the same way whether the coefficients are complex or not: I can show that real quick – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 19:00
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    Could you show that if you please Steve? – Veak Apr 16 '22 at 19:16

2 Answers2

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In general, it is easier to see here that the integrals are Fourier transforms.

$${a \over 2} \int_{-\infty}^\infty (e^{-bt^2+i \omega t} + e^{-bt^2-i \omega t})\; dt =\\ = \frac{a}{2} \sqrt{2 \pi} \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-bt^2+i \omega t} dt + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-bt^2-i \omega t} dt \right) =\\ =\frac{a}{2} \sqrt{2 \pi} \left( \mathcal{F}(e^{-bt^2})(\omega) + \mathcal{F}^{-1}(e^{-bt^2})(\omega) \right) = \frac{a}{2} \sqrt{2 \pi} \frac{\sqrt{2} e^{-\frac{\omega ^2}{4 b}}}{\sqrt{b}} = \frac{\sqrt{\pi } a e^{-\frac{\omega ^2}{4 b}}}{\sqrt{b}},$$ where $\mathcal{F}$ is a Fourier transform and $\mathcal{F}^{-1}$ is a inverse Fourier transform. We can find Fourier transforms for the desired functions from the special tables. Tables of some Fourier transforms can be viewed, for example, on Wikipedia.

jan
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Let's consider the general case for the Gaussian integral: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{ax^2 + bx + c} dx$$

where $a,b,$ and $c$ are complex and $\text{Re}(a) < 0.$

We can begin by completing the square in the exponent to bring the integral closer to the original $\int e^{-x^2} dx$ case: just as in the real numbers, we have $ax^2 + bx + c = a(x + \frac{b}{2a})^2 +(c - \frac{b^2}{4a}).$ Plugging this in:

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{ax^2 + bx + c} dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{a(x + \frac{b}{2a})^2 +(c - \frac{b^2}{4a})} dx = e^{c - \frac{b^2}{4a}} \cdot \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{a(x + \frac{b}{2a})^2} dx$$

using the exponent rule $e^{x + y} = e^x + e^y$ and pulling out a constant by the linearity of the integral.

Now we can proceed with the typical argument: $$I = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{a(x + \frac{b}{2a})^2} dx, I^2 = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{a(x + \frac{b}{2a})^2 + a(y + \frac{b}{2a})^2} dy dx = \iint_{\mathbb R^2} e^{a(x + \frac{b}{2a})^2 + a(y + \frac{b}{2a})^2} dA$$

We can modify our switch to polar coordinates slightly to accommodate for the extra term: let $x = r\cos\theta - \frac{b}{2a}$ and $y = r\sin\theta - \frac{b}{2a}.$ Because the only change is a constant, the derivatives of $x$ and $y$ are unchanged, and so is the Jacobian:

$$J = \begin{bmatrix}x_r & x_\theta \\ y_r & y_\theta\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}\cos\theta & -r\sin\theta \\ \sin\theta & r\cos\theta\end{bmatrix}$$ $$\det J = (\cos\theta)(r\cos\theta) - (\sin\theta)(-r\sin\theta) = r \cos^2\theta + r \sin^2\theta = r$$ $$I^2 = \int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^\infty e^{ar^2} r dr d\theta$$

We can recognize the innermost integrand as $\frac1{2a} \frac{d}{dr} e^{ar^2},$ so using the fundamental theorem of calculus and the defintion of our indefinite integral we have $\int_0^\infty e^{ar^2} r dr = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{2a} (e^{ab^2} - 1).$ By linearity (assuming for the moment that the required limits exist) this is equivalent to $\frac1{2a}[(\lim_{b \to \infty} e^{ab^2}) - 1].$

Let $a = s + it$ for real $s,t,$ noting that we've required $s < 0.$ Applying Euler's theorem, we have that $e^{ab^2} = e^{sb^2}\cdot e^{itb^2} = e^{sb^2}(\cos(tb^2) + i\sin(tb^2)).$ The squeeze theorem can now be applied to the real and imaginary parts to show that both go to $0,$ so the limit is $0.$

So we have:

$$I^2 = \int_0^{2\pi} -\frac{1}{2a} d\theta = -\frac\pi a \to I = \sqrt{- \frac \pi a}$$

and plugging back into our original form:

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{ax^2 + bx + c} dx = e^{c - \frac{b^2}{4a}}\sqrt{\frac \pi{-a}}$$

for $\text{Re}(a) < 0.$


Applying this to your case in particular we get $$\int_{\mathbb R} e^{-at^2}\cos(\omega t) dt = \int_{\mathbb R}\frac12(e^{-at^2+i\omega t} + e^{-at^2-i\omega t}) dt = \frac12\left(e^{-\frac{(i\omega)^2}{4(-a)}}\sqrt{\frac\pi {-(-a)}} + e^{-\frac{(-i\omega)^2}{4(-a)}}\sqrt{\frac\pi {-(-a)}}\right) = \boxed{e^{-\frac{\omega^2}{4a}}\sqrt{\frac\pi a}}$$


We can corroborate this result using an alternative method. Let $I(a, \omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-at^2}\cos(\omega t) dt.$ By the above style of argument we know that $I(a, 0) = \sqrt{\frac \pi a}.$

Now suppose we were to take a partial derivative with respect to $\omega.$ By the Leibniz rule of integration, we should be able to pull the derivative into the integral as follows:

$$\frac{\partial}{\partial\omega} I = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\partial}{\partial\omega} e^{-at^2}\cos(\omega t) dt = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} -te^{-at^2}\sin(\omega t) dt$$

We can use the extra $t$ to do integration by parts:

$$u = \sin(\omega t), dv = -te^{-at^2} dt$$ $$du = \omega \cos(\omega t) dt, v = \frac1{2a}e^{-at^2}$$

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} -te^{-at^2}\sin(\omega t) dt = \frac1{2a}\sin(\omega t)e^{-at^2}\Big|^{\infty}_{-\infty} - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac\omega{2a}e^{-at^2}\cos(\omega t) dt$$

Note that the integral we end up with is the same as our definition of $I,$ so substituting it in as $I$ we get:

$$\frac{\partial}{\partial \omega} I = -\frac{\omega}{2a} I$$

which can easily be solved as follows:

$$\frac1I \frac{\partial}{\partial \omega} I = -\frac{\omega}{2a}$$ $$\frac{\partial}{\partial \omega} (\ln I) = -\frac{\omega}{2a}$$ $$\ln I = -\frac{\omega^2}{4a} + f_1(a)$$ $$I = f_2(a)e^{-\frac{\omega^2}{4a}}$$ $$I(a, 0) = \sqrt{\frac \pi a} \Rightarrow I(a, \omega) = \sqrt{\frac \pi a} \cdot e^{-\frac{\omega^2}{4a}}$$

  • Apologies for the delay, answer got a bit long – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 20:01
  • Don't apologise Stephen. I expected things to be quite involved. Could you advice on any text or book that handles equations with complex coefficients (e.g. polynomials) I can introspect, if there exist ones? – Veak Apr 16 '22 at 21:22
  • Nothing comes to mind, but is there a particular question you have regarding polynomials with complex coefficients? – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 21:26
  • Somehow I need to elevate my skills on Theory of Equations to the complex cases (including complex coefficients), with a decent amount of proofs. Have only really seen books focused on coefficients in R. – Veak Apr 16 '22 at 21:42
  • My suggestion regarding that would just be to look closer at the manipulations you use on equations with real coefficients and see where the same manipulations are valid for equations with complex coefficients. Given some of the shared properties, the answer is often yes. – Stephen Donovan Apr 16 '22 at 22:09