Well we all know about this theorem.
Let $f\geq 0$ be a function that is integrable over [a,b] and $g:[a,b]\to \mathbb{R}$ be a monotonic function. Then there is a $c \in [a,b]$ with $$\int_a^b f(x)g(x)dx= g(a)\int_a^c f(x)dx + g(b) \int_c^b f(x)dx$$.
My problem is, that I would really like to find a counter example to prove, that this theorem is in general not right when g is not monotonic. That means if $g(x_1)\nleq g(x_2) (g(x_1)\ngeq g(x_2))\forall x_1<x_2$
Is there anyone who could help me out. I would be very grateful.