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In the hyperbolic plane, we have this following result :

On the geodesic boundary $\left(v_{1}, v_{2}\right)$, for example, we have, for $v \in\left(v_{1}, v_{2}\right)$, $$ v=\frac{\sinh \left(c-d_{\mathbb{H}^{2}}\left(v_{2}, v\right)\right)}{\sinh (c)} v_{1}+\frac{\sinh \left(d_{\mathbb{H}^{2}}\left(v_{1}, v\right)\right)}{\sinh (c)} v_{2}, $$ where $c$ is the geodesic edge lengths between $v_{1}$ and $v_{2}$ .

I am trying to find a similar one, in the Poincaré disk, so let $v_1,v_2 \in \mathbb D$ and $v\in (v_1,v_2)$. Now, the Möbius transformation : $$w=R(z) = \frac{z-v_1}{1-\bar{v_1}z} \Leftrightarrow z=R^{-1}(w) = \frac{w+v_1}{1+\bar{v_1}w}$$ is an isometry that maps $v_1$ to $0$, $R(v_2)$ to $r_2=\frac{v_2-v_1}{1-\bar{v_1}v_2}$, and $R(v)=r_1=\frac{v-v_1}{1-\bar{v_1}v}$. Since $r_1=\alpha r_2$, where $\alpha=d_{D}(0,r_1)/ d_D(0,r_2)$, we have : \begin{align*} v&=R^{-1}(r_1)=\frac{\alpha r_2+v_1}{1+\alpha r_1\bar v_1} \\ &=\frac{1-\bar v_1 v_2-\alpha}{1-\bar v_1 v_2+\alpha \bar v_1(v_2-v_1)}v_1+\frac{\alpha}{1-\bar v_1v_2+ \alpha(\bar v_1 v_2- |v_1|^2)} v_2 \\&=\lambda v_1+\mu v_2 \end{align*} The problem is to write $\lambda$ and $\mu$ as a hyperbolic function ($\tanh, \cosh$, or $\sinh$) of something. I think I should use this following theorem to rearrange the formulas, but I still cannot.

Theorem: Let $z, w \in \mathbb{D}$, and $d_{\mathbb{D}}$ the Poincaré distance, so we have :

  1. $\tanh \frac{1}{2} d_{\mathrm{D}}(z, w)=\left|\frac{z-w}{1-\bar{w} z}\right|$;
  2. $\cosh ^{2} \frac{1}{2} d_{\mathbb{D}}(z, w)=\frac{|1-z \bar{w}|^{2}}{\left(1-|z|^{2}\right)\left(1-|w|^{2}\right)}$;
  3. $\sinh ^{2} \frac{1}{2} d_{\mathbb{D}}(z, w)=\frac{|z-w|^{2}}{\left(1-|z|^{2}\right)\left(1-|w|^{2}\right)}$.

Any help is really appreciated !

M-S
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  • I think it's not possible since $\lambda$ and $\mu$ are complex numbers and $\sinh,\cosh,\tanh$ are real functions! – M-S Apr 25 '22 at 06:59
  • Pardon my ignorance: What exactly is the “geodesic boundary” in the hyperbolic plane, and what does $v \in\left(v_{1}, v_{2}\right)$ mean in the case of the plane and in the case of the disk? Do you have a reference for the first formula? – Martin R Apr 25 '22 at 07:27
  • To be honest sir, even me I don't know what they really means by it ! $v\in (v_1,v_2)$ means that $v$ lies on the geodesic between $v_1$ and $v_2$. The first fomula I found in in a paper ("Hyperbolic barycentric coordinates and applications , by Alaa eddine Bensad and Aziz Ikemakhen") – M-S Apr 25 '22 at 10:43
  • That article has to be payed for, so I am out of here :) – Martin R Apr 25 '22 at 10:53
  • I am afraid not, and it wouldn't help: This site is meant as a repository of questions and answers for everybody. Therefore both questions and answers should be self-contained, and not depend on an article behind a paywall. I would suggest that you try to add the relevant portions to the question (if the copyright of the article allows it). – Martin R Apr 25 '22 at 10:58
  • Okey, I think the important portions are here, the rest of the article discuss other results ! – M-S Apr 25 '22 at 11:03
  • The one I am looking for is not in the article, I am trying just to find similar results if there exists that could help me to find the barycentric coordinates in the Poincaré disk – M-S Apr 25 '22 at 11:04
  • I think your formula for the hyperbolic plane is wrong. The first factor should probably have $\sinh(c-d(v_1,v))$ in the numerator ($v_1$ instead of $v_2$), but even after that, the formula is a real convex combination of two complex points, i.e. a straight line segment. In general the geodesics are circular arcs which typically needs a nontrivial denominator (depending upon $v_1$ and $v_2$). Please verify. – H. H. Rugh May 01 '22 at 08:13
  • First of all I apologize for my late reply. Concerning the formula, I found it in an article on barycentric coordinates in the case of hyperbolic space and I try to follow the same approach – M-S May 05 '22 at 12:27

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