I'm having trouble understanding the following I read from a book:
If $m < n$, then $E\left( E [ Y| F_n ] | F_m \right) = E [ Y| F_m ]$.
My arguments are as follows: say $Z_m = E [ Y| F_m ]$ and $Z_n = E [ Y| F_n ]$. $Z_m$ is $m$-measurable. Therefore, I would say that $E[Z_m | F_n ]$ is the same as $Z_m$, since we are given more information than needed, and thus $Z_m$ is known provided the information $F_n$. Question 1: is this correct?
However, the book says that $E[Z_n | F_m] = Z_m$, and my best guess is that the book is right. Question 2: why is this true?