Can anyone explain why this is the case?
$$ \begin{aligned} p(\mathbf{x}) &=\frac{\exp \left\{\sum_{i=1}^{n} \mu_{i} x_{i}+\sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \sigma x_{i} x_{j}\right\}}{\sum_{\mathbf{x}} \exp \left\{\sum_{i=1}^{n} \mu_{i} x_{i}+\sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} \sigma x_{i} x_{j}\right\}} \\ &=\frac{\exp \left\{\sum_{i=1}^{n} \mu_{i} x_{i}+\sigma x_{+}^{2}\right\}}{\sum_{\mathbf{x}} \exp \left\{\sum_{i=1}^{n} \mu_{i} x_{i}+\sigma x_{+}^{2}\right\}}, \end{aligned} $$ in which $x_+ = \sum_{i = 1}^{n} x_i$ refers to the sum of the node states