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$$\frac{d}{d(2\cot\theta)}(\tan^{-1}2\cot\theta)\cdot\frac{d}{d(\cot\theta)}(2\cot\theta)\cdot\frac{d}{d\theta}(\cot\theta)\cdot\frac{d}{dx}\theta\tag{1}$$

$$\left(\frac{d}{d(2\cot\theta)}(\tan^{-1}2\cot\theta)\right)\cdot\left(\frac{d}{d(\cot\theta)}(2\cot\theta)\right)\cdot\left(\frac{d}{d\theta}(\cot\theta)\right)\cdot\frac{d}{dx}\theta\tag{2}$$

$$4\sin2x\cos2x\tag{3}$$

$$4(\sin2x)(\cos2x)\tag{4}$$

$(2)$ is completely unambiguous. No one can misinterpret anything. However, in $(1)$, one can misinterpret, for example, $\frac{d}{d(2\cot\theta)}(\tan^{-1}2\cot\theta)\cdot\frac{d}{d(\cot\theta)}(2\cot\theta)$ as meaning $\frac{d}{d(2\cot\theta)}\left[(\tan^{-1}2\cot\theta)\cdot\frac{d}{d(\cot\theta)}(2\cot\theta)\right]$ instead of $\left(\frac{d}{d(2\cot\theta)}(\tan^{-1}2\cot\theta)\right)\cdot\left(\frac{d}{d(\cot\theta)}(2\cot\theta)\right)$.

Similarly, $(4)$ is completely unambiguous. No one can misinterpret anything. However, in $(3)$, one can misinterpret $\sin2x\cos2x$ as meaning $\sin(2x\cos2x)$ instead of $(\sin2x)(\cos2x)$.

Is this a minor thing? Should I be worried about putting brackets obsessively? I experience so much anxiety now while doing math.


Related

RobPratt
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    Clarity > brevity. In fact, brevity often results in ambiguity, which wastes more time than putting a few more symbols (or words) which would makes everything unambiguous. So I prefer $(2)$ and $(4)$ over $(1)$ and $(3).$ – Adam Rubinson May 15 '22 at 13:42
  • Are expressions (1) and (2) really (commonly) a thing? – ryang May 15 '22 at 15:06
  • @ryang I didn't see $(2)$ written anywhere. My book uses a different version of $(1)$, though:

    $$\frac{d(\tan^{-1}2\cot\theta)}{d(2\cot\theta)}\cdot\frac{d(2\cot\theta)}{d(\cot\theta)}\cdot\frac{d(\cot\theta)}{d\theta}\cdot\frac{d\theta}{dx}\tag{*}$$

    – tryingtobeastoic May 15 '22 at 15:13
  • @ryang Now that I think about it, is $(*)$ the exact same as writing $(1)$? – tryingtobeastoic May 15 '22 at 15:16
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  • To me, (*) and (2) are essentially identical, while (1) pretty much (due to the product dots) means the same, my dislike of their common notation (hinted in my previous comment) notwithstanding; the only ambiguity (contrary to your assertion that (2) is unambiguous) is what the argument of that arctan is. $\quad$ 2. Similarly (and pedantically), (4) isn't completely unambiguous either: after all, $\sin 2x$ is interpretable as $(\sin 2)x.$ $\quad$ 3. Related: powers in trig functions
  • – ryang May 15 '22 at 16:00
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    @ryang You're right. arctan is still ambiguous in (2), and (4) is also ambiguous still. Aaaaaaaaaaaaaaa – tryingtobeastoic May 16 '22 at 02:58