Let $X$ and $Y$ be arbitrary sets. Further, let $X'\subset X$ and $Y', Y''\subset Y$, where and $Y'\neq Y''$. I am currently stating (and proving) a theorem of the form \begin{gather} x\in X'\Leftrightarrow (y\in Y')\vee(y\in Y'') \end{gather}
I am, however, writing this theorem in English. Hence, I am currently writing \begin{gather} \textit{x belongs to X if and only if y belongs to Y' or YY''} \end{gather} Since the symbol $\vee$ is inclusive and the English "or" is exclusive, I do not know whether I should instead write \begin{gather} \textit{x belongs to X if and only if y belongs to Y' or YY'' or both} \end{gather}
So, when stating a formal theorem in English, should "or" keep its English exclusive meaning, or should it adopt the inclusive meaning of the symbol $\vee$?