This question asks to find the $\lim_{x\to0}(x\tan x)^x$ . Ron Gordon and Maisam Hedyelloo make the substitution $ x\sim \tan x$ , and it works and they get the correct answer. However, if you try to make the substitution $x \sim \arcsin x$ into $\lim_{x \to 0} \large \frac {\arcsin(x)-x}{x^3}$ you get the wrong result of $0$, when in reality the limit is equal to $\frac 16$ . So when can you use this kind of substitution? Thanks.
P.S. I have asked a similar question here , and I thought I had the answer to the question but now I see that it is not complete.