Suppose $f$ is a function defined on $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ as follows:
$$ f(x,y) = \frac{x^{3}-y^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{2}} \text{ if } (x,y) \neq (0,0)$$
and $0$ if $(x,y) = (0,0)$.
I am asked to prove that the function is not differentiable at $(0,0)$.
I calculated the partial derivatives and they are $1$ and $-1$ respectively, in the $x$ and $y$ directions. I am unable to proceed from here.
Could any shed some light?
EDIT:
Based on the comments below, this is what I did:
We must show that
$$ \frac{\frac{x^{3} - y^{3}}{x^{2} + y^{2}} -x + y}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}}$$
does not tend to zero as $(x,y) \to (0,0)$. Now, if we take $y = \alpha x$, we get that this expression is equal to some non-zero constant involving $\alpha$ and hence does not tend to zero.