I was given the following differential equation: $$\left\{\begin{matrix}u_t+2u_x=0, \ \ x>0, \ \ t>0, \\ u(x,0)=\arctan(x), \ \ x>0, \hspace{0.15cm} { }\\ u(0,t)=\dfrac{t}{1+t^2}, \ \ t>0. \hspace{0.8cm} { }\end{matrix}\right.$$ But I think that it has no solution. If I'm right, maybe it is very obvious, but I'll give a proof.
Let's consider the reduced problem: $$\left\{\begin{matrix}u_t+2u_x=0, \ \ x>0, \ \ t>0, \\ u(x,0)=\arctan(x), \ \ x>0. \hspace{0.15cm} { }\end{matrix}\right. $$ It is not difficult to check that the function $\widetilde{u}(x,t)=\arctan(x-2t)$ is a solution to this problem. But it is a Cauchy problem, so $\widetilde{u}$ is unique. However, it is clear that the complete solution to the problem (taking $u(x,0)$ and $u(0,t)$), let's call it $u(x,t)$, is also a solution to the reduced problem. By uniqueness of the Cauchy problem, $u(x,t)=\widetilde{u}(x,t)$. But this is absurd, because $\widetilde{u}(0,t)=\arctan(-2t)\not=u(0,t)=t/(1+t^2)$. Then, the complete problem can't have solution.
Finally, am I right? If not, what can be wrong in my proof? Thanks for the help.
Edit (30/06/22): if possible, the solution I am looking for must be a classical solution.
