[I think you are referring to the divergence test in your post. I hope to clarify the source of confusion, but this is too long for a comment.]
Just to clarify the divergence test:
If $\lim_{n\to \infty} a_n \neq 0$, then $\sum_{n = 1}^\infty$ diverges.
Put differently (it it's contrapositive), if $\sum_{n = 0}^\infty a_n\;$ converges, then $\lim_{n\to \infty} a_n= 0$.
The converse is not necessarily true. For example, $a_n = \dfrac 1n$. It is certainly true that $\lim_{n\to \infty} \dfrac 1n = 0$. However, $$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac 1n \;\;\text{diverges}$$
Indeed, in this example, the harmonic series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{1}{2n}$ will make for a good comparison, using the comparison test: knowing that $$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac 1{2n}$$ diverges, and knowing that $$\dfrac 1{2n} \leq \sin\frac 1n$$, you can argue that your series must also diverge.