You are correct. It should be clear why $\forall x,y\in\Bbb{Z}$, $x=y\implies\sin(x)=\sin(y)$. It remains to prove the converse: $\forall x,y\in\Bbb{Z}$, $\sin(x)=\sin(y)\implies x=y$
We proceed by contradiction. Suppose instead that there exist integers $x,y$ such that $\sin(x)=\sin(y)$ yet $x\neq y$. Then, as you figured out, there are only $2$ possibilities:
Case 1: Suppose that $y=x+(2\pi)k$ for some nonzero $k\in \Bbb{Z}$. Then solving for $\pi$, we obtain:
$$
\pi=\dfrac{y-x}{2k}
$$
Since $x,y,k\in\Bbb{Z}$ where $k\neq0$, it follows that $\pi \in \Bbb{Q}$, a contradiction.
Case 2: Suppose that $y=(\pi-x)+(2\pi)k$ for some $k\in \Bbb{Z}$. Then solving for $\pi$, we obtain:
$$
\pi=\dfrac{y+x}{1+2k}
$$
Since $x,y,k\in\Bbb{Z}$ where $k\neq-1/2$, it follows that $\pi \in \Bbb{Q}$, a contradiction.
In either case, we obtained a contradiction. Hence, we have proven the converse, as desired.