$
\newcommand\grade[1]{\langle#1\rangle}
\newcommand\lcontr{{\rfloor}}
\newcommand\rcontr{{\lfloor}}
$
I will answer the first question in two ways: the way they did it, and the better way. By then we will have the answer to the second question.
How they did it
$A$ and $B$ are bivectors, and $x$ is a vector. We get
$$
A\cdot(x\wedge(x\cdot B)) = \grade{A(x\wedge(x\cdot B))} = \grade{A\,x{\wedge}(x\cdot B)}
$$ since we know the result is a scalar, and then we drop the first set of parentheses since we give the geometric product less precedence. Now, the geometric product $x(x\cdot B)$ has a grade 0 part $x\cdot(x\cdot B)$ and a grade 2 part $x\wedge(x\cdot B)$. But $\grade{A(\text{not grade 2})} = 0$ because $A$ is grade 2 (the product of a $k$-vector and an $l$-vector gives a least possible grade of $|k-l|$). So in this case it's perfectly safe to replace $x\wedge(x\cdot B)$ with $x(x\cdot B)$:
$$
\grade{A\,x{\wedge}(x\cdot B)} = \grade{Ax(x\cdot B)} = \grade{(Ax)(x\cdot B)}.
$$
The last equality is by associativity of the geometric product (which is key in a lot of manipulations like this). The term $x\cdot B$ is grade 1, so $\grade{(\text{not grade 1})(x\cdot B)} = 0$, meaning we only get the grade 1 part of $Ax$ which is $A\cdot x$. Hence
$$
\grade{(Ax)(x\cdot B)} = \grade{(A\cdot x)(x\cdot B)}.
$$
I don't know why they decided to write $\grade{(A\cdot x)xB}$ instead, since what I would next is
$$
\grade{(A\cdot x)(x\cdot B)}
= (A\cdot x)\cdot(x\cdot B)
= -(x\cdot A)\cdot(x\cdot B).
$$
The first equality comes from the fact that $A\cdot x$ and $x\cdot B$ are vectors. Now we see that this expression is symmetric in $A$ and $B$ (since the dot of two vectors is), so we can simply swap them in the original expression:
$$
A\cdot(x\wedge(x\cdot B)) = B\cdot (x\wedge(x\cdot A)).
$$
The better way
Read The Inner Products of Geometric Algebra (2002) by Leo Dorst. The left and right contractions $\lcontr$ and $\rcontr$ are variants of Doran an Lasenby's dot product which are better theoretically and practically. They could be defined as
$$
A_r\lcontr B_s = \begin{cases}
\grade{A_rB_s}_{s-r} &\text{if } s \geq r, \\
0 &\text{otherwise},
\end{cases}
$$$$
A_r\rcontr B_s = \begin{cases}
\grade{A_rB_s}_{r-s} &\text{if } r \geq s, \\
0 &\text{otherwise},
\end{cases}
$$
where here subscripts indicate grade.
The important identities for our purposes are
$$
(A\wedge B)\lcontr C = A\lcontr(B\lcontr C),\quad
A\rcontr(B\wedge C) = (A\rcontr B)\rcontr C,
$$
which hold for all multivectors $A, B, C$. We translate the dots into contractions and then everything is simple. The dot with $B$ could be $\lcontr$ or $\rcontr$, but we judiciously choose $\rcontr$.
$$
A\cdot(x\wedge(x\cdot B))
= A\rcontr(x\wedge(x\lcontr B))
= (A\rcontr x)\rcontr(x\lcontr B)
= (A\rcontr x)\cdot(x\lcontr B).
$$
In the last step I switch $\rcontr$ to $\cdot$ since the arguments have the same grade and I like to emphasize the symmetry. Same as before we get
$$
(A\rcontr x)\cdot(x\lcontr B) = -(x\lcontr A)\cdot(x\lcontr B),
$$
which shows that $A$ and $B$ are symmetric in this expression, hence
$$
A\rcontr(x\wedge(x\lcontr B)) = B\rcontr(x\wedge(x\lcontr A)).
$$
Question 2
The expression
$$
(Ia)\cdot(x\wedge(x\cdot(Ia)))
$$
is the same one as before with $A = B = Ia$, and I've shown in two ways that
$$
(Ia)\cdot(x\wedge(x\cdot(Ia))) = -(x\cdot(Ia))\cdot(x\cdot(Ia))
$$
But then we see
$$
-(x\cdot(Ia))\cdot(x\cdot(Ia)) = -(x\cdot(Ia))^2,
$$
and there's a minus sign in front the integral which cancels with this one.