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Consider a symmetric random walk on the number line where steps are size $1$. If a step from $0$ tries to go to $-1$ you stay at $0$ instead. You start at $0$ and we want to compute the expected time to reach $x>0$.

From numerical experiments it seems to be $x(x+1)$. How can this be proved?

2 Answers2

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Let $E_k=$ expected number of steps to reach $x$ starting from $k$.

For $k=1,2, 3, ..., x-1$ we have the following recurrence relation:

$$E_k=\dfrac{1}{2}(E_{k-1}+1)+\dfrac{1}{2}(E_{k+1}+1)$$

(Explanation: From $k$, if the random direction is $-1$ then the number of steps to reach $x$ becomes $E_{k-1}+1$. If the random direction is $+1$ then the expected number of steps to reach $x$ becomes $E_1+1$.)

It is easy to show that $E_k=x(x+1)-k(k+1)$ satisfies the recurrence relation. This must be the correct expression for $E_k$, because there is only one value for $E_k$ for each value of $k$.

$\therefore E_1=x(x+1)-2$

We also have

$$E_0=\frac{1}{2}(E_0+1)+\frac{1}{2}(E_1+1)\implies E_0=E_1+2$$

$\therefore E_0=x(x+1)$

Dan
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Let $\tau_x$ be the hitting time of the level $x>0$. Decompose this time into the separate returns to zero. Formally, $\tau_x = T_R$ where $T_i$ is defined recursively with $T_0 = 0$ and $T_i = \min\{k> T_i, X_k \in \{0,x \}\}$, and $R = \min\{i, X_{T_i} = x\}$.

What the walk does in each of the intervals $[T_{i-1},T_i]$ is independent of the past, conditional on the knowledge of where you were at time $T_i$ (either $x$ or $0$), and is distributed as a fresh walk started from this point. This is the strong Markov property.

Now write $$\tau_x = T_R = \sum_{i=1}^R T_i - T_{i-1}\\ = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \Bbb 1_{R\geq i} (T_i - T_{i-1})\\ = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \Bbb 1_{X_{T_1}=0}1_{X_{T_2}=0}\ldots 1_{X_{T_{i-1}}=0}(T_i - T_{i-1})\\ $$

The expectation of each of the terms is easy to compute with successive conditioning, that is $$\mathbb E[\Bbb 1_{X_{T_1}=0}1_{X_{T_2}=0}\ldots 1_{X_{T_{i-1}}=0}(T_i - T_{i-1})] \\= \mathbb P(X_{T_1}=0) \mathbb P(X_{T_2}=0 | X_{T_1}=0) \mathbb P(X_{T_{i-1}}=0 | X_{T_{i-2}}=0) \mathbb E[T_i - T_{i-1}|T_{i-1}=0]$$

Now because of the strong Markov property, these are the same as the original walk wich was started at zero.

$$ = \mathbb P(X_{T_1} = 0)^{i-1} \mathbb E[T_1].$$

So by linearity of expectation $$\mathbb E[\tau_x] = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \mathbb P(X_{T_1} = 0)^{i-1} \mathbb E(T_1) = \mathbb E[T_1] \times \dfrac 1 {1-P(X_{T_1} = 0)} = \dfrac {\mathbb E[T_1]}{P(X_{T_1} = x)}.$$

We have reduced the problem to something much simpler. Now if you think about it, $T_1$ is the same as the first time to hit either $x$ or $-1$ started from $0$ for the simple random walk on $\mathbb Z$, a very classical setting called gambler's ruin. You will readily find formulas in books or on the web both for the expected hitting time of a upper and lower level started from zero, and for the probability that the upper level is reached. Plugging these in will yield the formula you conjectured (good job for that).

justt
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