Let $g=f'$ to simplify the setup. The question is about the relation of the Fourier coefficients of $g$ and $C=g/(1+g^2)$. Since the transform from $g$ to $C$ is nonlinear, there is no clear relation between the coefficients. For example, if $g(x)=\cos x$, then the only nonzero (cosine) coefficient of $g$ is $a_1=1$ while the expansion of $C$ is
$$
(2-\sqrt{2})\cos x +(7\sqrt{2}-10)\cos 3x+ (58-41\sqrt{2}) \cos 5x +(239\sqrt{2}-338)\cos 7x +\dots
$$
Clearly, you can't get these coefficients by manipulating with $a_1=1$. Other than reconstructing $g$ from its Fourier coefficients, and expanding $g/(1+g^2)$ as usual.
But one can give some qualitative statements, such as: if the coefficients of $g$ are $O(n^{-k-\epsilon})$ for some integer $k$ and $\epsilon>0$, then the coefficients of $C$ are $O(n^{1-k})$. Indeed, $\hat g_k=O(n^{-k-\epsilon})$ implies $g$ is $(k-1)$ times continuously differentiable, consequently, so is $C$, and the claim follows.