I'm linking the following proof from MIT OCW about why the gradient vector is normal to the surface.
Now, while I understood the proof from the link, the first thing that came to my mind was, "Why not try and apply it to calculate derivatives of single variable functions?" However, this is when everything essentially broke for me.
Take for example, $f(x)=x^2$. Going by MIT's proof, should I not also be able to say $f(x) = x^2 = c$, as some constant $c$? From there, differentiate both sides by x, and therefore get $2x=0$? However, here is where I get confused. I simply do not know how to interpret this equation as unlike in the proof, there does not seem to be any dot product, unless of course, we were to say that 2 and x are single dimensional vectors respectively.
I suspect that I am also confusing some other concepts, and I apologize for that. I really appreciate any clarification on this.