I'm trying to practice arguing logical equivalence. I know how to do this via truth tables, or by some applications of contrapositives, but I'd like to get a handle on logical argumentation.
My biggest question is: is my argument is valid? Aside from that, all feedback/critique is welcomed (did I make my assumptions clear? is this too verbose? etc)
Currently I have written the following argument:
Claim
$[(\phi \lor \psi) \implies \theta] \iff [(\phi \implies \theta) \wedge (\psi \implies \theta)]$
Argument/Proof
$\Rightarrow$
Given $\phi$, then $\phi \lor \psi$ holds. Since $\phi \lor \psi$ holds when $\phi$, we can conclude $\theta$. Thus, $\phi \implies \theta$
Given $\psi$, then $\phi \lor \psi$ holds. Since $\phi \lor \psi$ holds when $\psi$, we can conclude $\theta$. Thus, $\psi \implies \theta$
Hence, $\phi\implies\theta$ and $\psi\implies\theta$
Thefore, $[(\phi \lor \psi) \implies \theta] \implies [(\phi \implies \theta) \wedge (\psi \implies \theta)]$
$\Leftarrow$
Given $\phi$, $(\phi\implies\theta)\wedge(\psi\implies\theta)$, we can conclude $\theta$ from $\phi\implies\theta$ when $\phi$
Given $\psi$, $(\phi\implies\theta)\wedge(\psi\implies\theta)$, we can conclude $\theta$ from $\psi\implies\theta$ when $\psi$
If we can deduce $\theta$ from $\phi$, or deduce $\theta$ from $\psi$, we can deduce $\theta$ from $\phi$ or $\psi$. That is, $(\phi\lor\psi)\implies\theta$
Therefore, $[(\phi \implies \theta) \wedge (\psi \implies \theta)] \implies [(\phi \lor \psi) \implies \theta]$