Suppose that $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ and let $c \in \mathbb{R} \backslash \{0\}$ be fixed such that:
- $f(1) = c$
- $f(x+1) = f(x) + f(1)$, for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$
I proved the following properties:
For any $m \in \mathbb{Z}$ and any $x \in \mathbb{R}$, $$f(x + m) = f(x) + f(m) = f(x) + cm$$
$f$ is well-defined.
It seems that $f$ satisfy:
For all $x,y \in \mathbb{R}$, $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$
but I dont think its true, but if I can show that property, maybe $f(x) = cx$, for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
Maybe using $x = \lfloor x \rfloor - \text{frac}(x)$ will work, but it got me with this property:
For any $x \in \mathbb{R}$: $$f(x) - f(\text{frac}(x)) = f(x - \text{frac}(x))$$
Any hints?
Thanks.
EDIT
I noticed that $f$ is not injective. My bad.