This seems like a very simple question, and I apologize if that is the case. In trying to prove the result in general, I ran into an issue with something I think I should understand but don't fully.
Say I have a system of equations \begin{align*} ax + by &= r \\ cx + dy &= s \end{align*} and I require that $ad - bc \neq 0$. Suppose that, using elimination, I solve for $y$ in terms of $x$. I then want to back-substitute into one of the above equations to solve for $x$.
My question is this. This could, in principle, go wrong, but it shouldn't in this case. It's possible I could use equation (1) above and solve for $x$, and then plug my resulting $(x,y)$ pair into equation (2) and get a contradiction. There's no good reason for me to choose equation (1) over equation (2), but there's some reason that I should be able to use just one of them and be confident that my answer is still correct. My question is, why is that the case?
The alternative is, I could use elimination again, starting from the top, and find $x$ entirely in the same way, in which case there shouldn't be any such problems, but I'm mostly interested in why substitution works here.