If $t$ is supposed to be a concrete value rather than the indeterminate in which $p$ is a polynomial (this would be the most natural reading of the question as it is phrase) then the statement is false. For instance take $p(x)=x^2$ and $t$ a fifth root of unity like $\exp(2\pi\mathbf i/5)$, then $p(p(p(t)))=t^{16}=t$ but $p(t)=t^2\neq t$ and $p(p(t))=t^4\neq t$.
If $t$ is a indeterminate and $p(t)\in\mathbf C[t]$, then the statement is still false, taking $p(t)=\alpha t$ with $\alpha=\exp(2\pi\mathbf i/3)$ so that $p(t)\neq t$, $p(p(t))=\alpha^2t\neq t$ but $p(p(p(t)))=\alpha^3t=t$.