The question I am trying to show under what conditions
$$\vec{A}\times(\vec{B}\times\vec{C}) = (\vec{A}\times\vec{B})\times\vec{C}.$$
I have found that right-hand side of the above equation is equal to
\begin{align} (\vec{A}\times\vec{B})\times\vec{C} &=-\vec{C}\times(\vec{A}\times\vec{B})\\ &= \vec{C}\times(\vec{B}\times\vec{A}). \end{align}
This is similar to the left-hand side of the original equation.
The conclusion I arrived at was, in order for the equality to be true, either $\vec{A}, \vec{B}$ or $\vec{C}$ have to be zero, or $\vec{A}$ must be equal to $\vec{C}$.
Is this correct? If not, or if I am missing anything, please let me know.