On page 42, Spivak proves the Implicit Function Theorem. 
As shown in the picture, $k$ is a function defined on $W$, but how I can know that $\forall x\in A, (x,0)\in W$? This is the only part of the theorem that I do not understand.
On page 42, Spivak proves the Implicit Function Theorem. 
As shown in the picture, $k$ is a function defined on $W$, but how I can know that $\forall x\in A, (x,0)\in W$? This is the only part of the theorem that I do not understand.
I believe it's a genuine error in Spivak's proof of the implicit function theorem. Here is an example to drive the point home.
In Spivak's proof, it could be the case that $f:\mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R$ is defined by $$ f(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 - 25 $$ and $F:\mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R^2$ is given by $$ F(x,y) = \begin{bmatrix} x \\ x^2 + y^2 - 25 \end{bmatrix}. $$ The point $\begin{bmatrix} a \\ b \end{bmatrix}$ could be $\begin{bmatrix} 3 \\ 4 \end{bmatrix}$, and the sets $A$ and $B$ introduced in Spivak's proof could be $A = (2,5)$ and $B = (3,5)$. The set $W = \{ \begin{bmatrix} x \\ f(x,y) \end{bmatrix} \mid x \in (2,5), y \in (3,5) \}$ is visualized in the figure below. We can see that if $x > 4$ then $\begin{bmatrix} x \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \notin W$.
Also note that if $x > 4$ then there is no point $y \in B = (3,5)$ such that $f(x,y) = 0$. So in this example it is not true that if $x \in A$ then there exists $y \in B$ such that $f(x,y) = 0$.