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I have the series $F(n)=\sum_{j=0}^n = f(n-j)g(j)$ and I have that

1- As $m$ increases, $f(m)$ approaches $L$ (the limit point) 2- As $j$ increases, $g(j)$ decreases EXPONENTIALLY to $0$

Question: Can I say that $\lim_{n\to \infty} F(n) = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} L g(j)$

If not, does the series converge?

Thank you

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