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Consider an event with $n>1$ possible mutually exclusive outcomes, and a betting system which rewards each outcome $1, \ldots, n$ with quotes $q_1, \ldots, q_n > 1$, i.e., if I bet a positive real $x_i$ on the outcome $i$, $1 \le i \le n$, I have a net gain of $(q_i-1)x_i$.

Now suppose that I want to bet something on all outcomes and decide, given the quotes, whether there can always be a gain. I want, therefore, to find solutions to:

$$\begin{cases} (q_1-1)x_1-x_2-x_3+\cdots -x_n \gt 0 \\ -x_1+(q_2-1)x_2-x_3+\cdots -x_n \gt 0 \\ \qquad\qquad\qquad \vdots \\ -x_1-x_2-x_3+\cdots +(q_n-1)x_n \gt 0 \\ \end{cases}$$

I have first modified the system with equalities for the "fair game" condition ($=0$ instead of $>0$), then "normalized" with $x_n=1$, and with the help of Wolfram Alpha, found a solution for the first $n-1$ equations ($n \le 4$), replaced it in the last equation to guess the conjecture that my first system above has solutions if and only if:

$$\prod_{i=1}^n{q_i} \gt \sum_{1 \le j_1 \lt j_2 \lt \cdots \lt j_{n-2} \lt j_{n-1} \le n} {q_{j_1}q_{j_2} \cdots q_{j_{n-2}}q_{j_{n-1}}}$$

For example with $n=2$ if and only if $q_1q_2 \gt q_1+q_2$, with $n=3$ if and only if $$q_1q_2q_3 \gt q_1q_2+q_1q_3+q_2q_3$$ and so on.

Assuming that the conjecture is true and can be proven formally (hints on material on the subject or a proof are welcome anyway), my main question is: when the first system has solutions, is it possible to find analytically the tuple $(x_1/x_n,x_2/x_n, \ldots ,x_{n-1}/x_n,1)$ that maximizes the expected gain supposing that each outcome $i$ has a probability proportional to $1/(q_i-1)$? Or is linear programming for specific cases the only way to go?

EDIT 2022-09-13

Empirically, the result seems to be $(q_n/q_1,q_n/q_2, \ldots ,q_n/q_{n-1},1)$ which gives the same gain for any outcome.

2 Answers2

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Take the case of $n=2$. The quotes are $q_1$ and $q_2$. Suppose we bet $x_1$ and $x_2$, and let $x'_1=\frac{x_1}{x_2}$. Our minimum profit is then $\min((q_1-1)x_1-x_2,(q_2-1)x_2-x_1)=x_2(\min((q_1x'_1-x'_1-1,q_2-1-x'_1))=x_2(\min((q_1x'_1,q_2)-1-x'_1)$. We want the minimum profit to be positive, so $x_2(\min((q_1x'_1,q_2)-1-x'_1)>0$. Specifically, this means that both $x_2((q_1x'_1-1-x'_1)>0$ and $x_2(q_2-1-x'_1)>0$. Dividing by $x_2$, we have that both $(q_1x'_1-1-x'_1>0$ and $q_2-1-x'_1>0$. This means that $x'_1>\frac1{q_1-1}$ and $x'_1<q_2-1$. Combining these inequalities and removing the middle part gives that $\frac{1}{q_1-1}<q_2-1$, or $1<(q_1-1)(q_2-1)=q_1q_2-(q_1+q_2)+1$. As a result, we get the requirement $q_1+q_2<q_1q_2$ and then any $x'_1$ fulfilling $\frac{1}{q_1-1}<x'_1<q_2-1$ is a guaranteed winning strategy.

I'd imagine you could use similar methodology for higher values of $n$.

Moko19
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Let $A$ be the matrix whose diagonal entries are $q_i-1$, and whose off-diagonal entries are $-1$. If you bet $x$, then your possible winnings are described by the vector $Ax$. Call a vector "positive" if all of its entries are positive. In order to ensure a positive gain, you need to find a positive vector $x$ for which $Ax$ is positive.

Theorem: You can ensure a positive gain if and only if $q_1^{-1}+q_2^{-1}+\dots+q_n^{-1}<1$.

Proof: We may as well normalize our vector $x$ so that $\sum_{i=1}^n x_i=1$. For any normalized vector, $$ Ax=\begin{bmatrix}q_1x_1-1\\q_2x_2-1\\\vdots \\q_nx_n-1\end{bmatrix} $$ This is positive if and only if $x_i> q_i^{-1}$ for all $i$. Since $\sum_i x_i=1$, this is only possible if $1>\sum_i q_i^{-1}$.


For the second part, you are putting a certain probability distribution on the set of outcomes, and asking how to find the maximum expected gain. Let $p=\begin{bmatrix}p_1&p_2&\cdots & p_n \end{bmatrix}$ be the vector describing the probability distribution. Then your expected gain is $$ p_1q_1x_1+p_2q_2x_2+\dots+p_nq_nx_n - 1 $$ If we were only optimizing for expected value, the optimal strategy is to find the index $j$ for which $p_jq_j$ is maximized, and to bet your entire stake on outcome $j$. This gives an expected gain of $p_jq_j-1$.

However, I think you are talking about about finding the maximum expected gain, subject to the constraint that your gain is always positive. We saw before that you need to bet $x_i>q_i^{-1}$ for all $i$ to ensure positive gain. If you bet $x_i=q_i^{-1}+\varepsilon$ on all vectors for some small $\varepsilon>0$, then you have $1-(q_1^{-1}+\dots+q_n^{-1}+n\epsilon)$ leftover. It is then optimal to bet all of the leftovers on the $j$ for which $p_jq_j$ is maximized. However, there is no maximum expected value; you can always increase your expected gain by decreasing $\varepsilon$ further, giving you more leftovers to place on the most efficient bet.

Mike Earnest
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  • I have to give credit to Lourran for the idea behind this answer. Out of the several answers to betting problems like this posted on MSE, Lourran's answer was the first to really get at a simple solution to the general problem. – Mike Earnest Nov 30 '22 at 22:04
  • I think the expected gain is $p_1(q_1-1)x_1+p_2(q_2-1)x_2+\dots+p_n(q_n-1)x_n \not = p_1q_1x_1+p_2q_2x_2+\dots+p_nq_nx_n - 1$. And due to my assumption that $p_i=k/(q_i-1)$ it is constant and equal to $\sum kx_i = k$. I need to think about it more... – Fabius Wiesner Nov 30 '22 at 23:52
  • @BillyJoe You agree that when outcome number $i$ is chosen, that the gain is $q_ix_i-1$, correct? You get $+q_ix_i$ for winning the bet, and your total stake you put up (which you do not get back) was $\sum_i x_i=1$, so the gain is $q_ix_i-1$. Therefore, the expected gain is $$\sum_i p_i(q_ix_i-1)=\left(\sum_i p_iq_ix_i\right)-\left(\sum_i p_i\right)=\left(\sum_i p_iq_ix_i\right)-1,$$ which is exactly what I said in my answer. – Mike Earnest Dec 01 '22 at 05:12
  • Oh yes, right, thank you, I made some confusion. – Fabius Wiesner Dec 01 '22 at 07:21