We know that MOM estimate may not be unique. The most common example is Poisson distribution.
From my lecture notes, it said if we only consider $m_1 = \mu_1'$, then we have $\hat{\lambda} = \bar{X}$. While if we consider $m_1 = \mu_1'$ and $m_2 = \mu_2'$ together, then $m_2 = \lambda + m_1^2 =\lambda + \bar{X}^2$, which implies $\hat{\lambda} = m_2 - m_1^2$.
My question is why I cannot write $m_2 = \lambda + \lambda^2 $, so this will be a new estimate.