This seems intuitively true, but it seems impossible to work it out according to the definition on Guillemin and Pollack's Differential Topology Page 108, tracing back t0 107 and 100.
Page 108:
We define the degree of an arbitrary smooth map $f: X \to Y$ to be the intersection number of $f$ with any point $y$, $\deg(f) = I(f,\{y\})$.
Page 107
If $f: X \to Y$ is transversal to $Z$, then $f^{-1}(Z)$ is finite number of points, each with an orientation number $\pm 1$ provided by the preimage orientation. Define the intersection number $I(f,Z)$ to be the sum of these orientation numbers.
Page 100:
Let $f: X \to Y$ be a smooth map with $f \pitchfork Z$ and $\partial f \pitchfork Z$, where $X,Y,Z$ are oriented and the last two are boundaryless. We define a preimage orientation on the manifold-with-boundary $S = f^{-1}(Z).$
Then the preimage orientation will be determined by $$df_xN_x(S;X) \oplus T_z(Z) = T_z(Y),$$ where $N_x(S; X)$ be the orthogonal complement to $T_x(S)$ in $T_x(X)$.
I looked into the basic stuff, but eventually the definitions constitute the claim does not go through! Could anyone give me some help to clear this out? Thanks.