This is, of course, a very well-known proof, and may indeed be very similar to the proof using "distinguishing cases" that you already have. All I am doing below is adapting this proof so that it sounds purely as a proof by contradiction (twice over). Hope that helps.
On with the proof! Suppose the opposite, i.e. that there exists $a\in\mathbb Z$ such that $4\mid a^2+1$.
Let's first prove that $a$ must be odd. Suppose the opposite, i.e. that $a$ is even. But then, $a^2$ will be even, and so $a^2+1$ would be odd, and therefore not divisible by $4$. Contradiction.
Now, knowing that $a$ is odd, it means that $a=2k+1$ for some $k\in\mathbb Z$. Then,
$$a^2+1=(2k+1)^2+1=4k^2+4k+2=4(k^2+k)+2$$
which is not divisible by $4$ because it has remainder $2$ when divided by $4$. Contradiction (again)!