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For this question:

$$\forall n \in Z, \exists y \in R -{0}$$ such that $$y^n \leq y$$

Why is the following explanation wrong?

$$y^n\leq y=nln(y)\leq ln(y)= n \leq 1$$ Hence the statement is false

1 Answers1

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The line of reasoning you presented is incorrect because $\ln y$ is less than $0$ for $y \in (0,1)$. [Recall $am < an$; $a$ negative; $\implies$ $m > n$.]

You should apply this to your OP to note the following:

  • If $n$ positive and $\not =1$ then $y^n < y$ for all $y \in (0,1)$. [Use $n >1$ and multiply both sides of $n >1$ by $\ln y$ and then note $\ln y < 0$ to conclude $n \ln y < \ln y$.]

  • If $n$ is nonpositive then $y^n < y$ for all $y > 1$. [Use $\ln y$ positive and $n$ nonpositive to conclude $n \ln y < \ln y$ i.e., a nonpositive number namely here $n \ln y$ is less than a positive one namely here $\ln y$.

What about $n=1$?


Or starting from the top, you could simply note directly that $(1/2)^n < 1/2$ for each integer $n \ge 2$ and $2^n < 2$ for each integer $n \le 0$, and $1^n \le 1$ [actually equals of course] for the remaining $n=1$.

Mike
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